Nursing MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Nursing - Download Free PDF
Last updated on Jun 30, 2025
Latest Nursing MCQ Objective Questions
Nursing Question 1:
The 'New Population Policy of Uttar Pradesh' has been implemented by the Government of Uttar Pradesh _____.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 3 : From 2021 to 2030
Nursing Question 1 Detailed Solution
Concept:
The new population policy launched in Uttar Pradesh has been implemented by the Government in 2021-2030 by Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister for Control, Stabilization, and Welfare.
Aim
- Maintain a balance among the population.
- Awareness and extensive programs among communities of the cadres and geographical areas.
Key Points
|
Key Feature |
Target for 2026 |
Target for 2030 |
|
Decreased Fertility Rate |
Decreased the rate from 2.7 to 2.1 |
Lower the rate to 1.7 |
|
The increased modern contraceptive prevalence rate |
Increased the rate from 31.7 to 45 |
Increased the rate to 52 |
|
Decreased male method of contraception Rate |
Decreased the rate from 10.8 to 15.1 |
Lower the rate to 16.4 |
|
Decreased Maternal Mortality rate |
Decreased the rate from 197 to 150 |
lower the rate to 98 |
|
Decreased the infant under 5 mortality rate |
Decreased the rate from 47 to 35 |
Lower the rate to 25 |
Additional Information
| Year | Event |
| 2018-28 |
2. J& K trade export Policy |
| 2020-30 |
|
| 2019-2029 |
The Rural Sanitation Strategy The rural sanitation Strategy was introduced by the minister of the Jal Shakti department.
|
Nursing Question 2:
The nurse monitors a patient of acute pancreatitis. Which assessment finding indicates the paralytic ileus has developed?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Firm, nontender mass palpable at the lower right costal margin
Nursing Question 2 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Firm, non-tender mass palpable at the lower right costal margin
Rationale:
- Acute pancreatitis is a sudden inflammation of the pancreas that can cause severe abdominal pain, digestive issues, and systemic complications. Paralytic ileus is a condition in which the normal peristaltic movements of the intestines are significantly reduced or absent, leading to obstruction-like symptoms without a physical blockage. It can be a complication of acute pancreatitis.
- A firm, non-tender mass palpable at the lower right costal margin is indicative of paralytic ileus in patients with acute pancreatitis. This finding suggests that the bowel has become distended and immobile due to a loss of intestinal motility, causing gas and fluid accumulation.
- Paralytic ileus often occurs due to inflammation, electrolyte imbalances, or metabolic disturbances associated with acute pancreatitis. It requires timely intervention to prevent further complications such as bowel perforation or infection.
Explanation of Other Options:
Inability to pass flatus
- Rationale: While the inability to pass flatus can occur in paralytic ileus, it is a non-specific symptom and does not definitively indicate the condition. It may also be seen in other gastrointestinal obstructions or disorders.
Loss of anal sphincter control
- Rationale: Loss of anal sphincter control is not a hallmark sign of paralytic ileus. This symptom is more commonly associated with neurological disorders or severe spinal cord injuries, rather than gastrointestinal complications like paralytic ileus.
Severe, constant pain with rapid onset
- Rationale: Severe, constant pain with rapid onset is a characteristic symptom of acute pancreatitis itself rather than paralytic ileus. While paralytic ileus can develop as a complication, pain alone does not confirm its presence.
Firm, non-tender mass palpable at the lower right costal margin
- Rationale: This is the correct answer because it reflects the physical manifestation of paralytic ileus in the form of distended and immobile bowel loops. The palpable mass results from the accumulation of gas and fluid, which is consistent with the loss of intestinal motility.
Conclusion:
- Paralytic ileus is a serious complication of acute pancreatitis that requires prompt recognition and management. Among the listed options, the presence of a firm, non-tender mass at the lower right costal margin is the most definitive sign of this condition. Understanding the clinical manifestations and associated findings is essential for timely diagnosis and intervention.
Nursing Question 3:
Grey colour injection port cap of I.V cannula represents which of the following
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : 16 G
Nursing Question 3 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: 16 G
Rationale:
- The grey color injection port cap of an I.V. cannula signifies its gauge size. In this case, it represents a 16-gauge (16 G) cannula. The gauge of a cannula refers to the diameter of the needle or catheter, and it is an essential parameter in determining its clinical use.
- A 16 G cannula is widely used in clinical settings where rapid fluid replacement or blood transfusion is required. Its larger diameter allows for faster flow rates, making it ideal in emergency situations such as trauma or severe dehydration.
Explanation of Other Options:
14 G
- Rationale: The 14 G cannula is typically identified with an orange color cap. It is the largest size in commonly used I.V. cannulas and is used in critical emergencies where extremely rapid fluid resuscitation or blood transfusion is necessary. However, it is not associated with the grey color cap.
18 G
- Rationale: The 18 G cannula is identified with a green color cap. It is slightly smaller than 16 G and is frequently used for routine blood transfusions, medication administration, or fluid replacement. It does not correspond to the grey color cap.
20 G
- Rationale: The 20 G cannula is identified with a pink color cap. It is smaller than both 16 G and 18 G and is used for routine intravenous access for medications or fluids. It is not linked to the grey color cap.
No Option Provided
- Rationale: In the context of this question, there is no fifth option provided in the list, so no further explanation is needed.
Additional Information:
- The gauge of an I.V. cannula inversely correlates with its size. A smaller gauge number means a larger diameter, and a larger gauge number means a smaller diameter.
- Color coding of cannula caps is standardized in clinical practice to ensure quick identification of the gauge size, which is critical in emergencies and routine medical care.
- Proper selection of cannula size is essential to meet the specific needs of the patient, such as the speed of fluid administration and the type of therapy being provided.
Conclusion:
- The grey color injection port cap of an I.V. cannula represents a 16 G cannula, making it suitable for high-flow fluid resuscitation or blood transfusion. Other options correspond to different gauge sizes and color codes, which are not associated with the grey cap.
Nursing Question 4:
Which nursing assessment finding indicates the presence of an inguinal hernia on a child?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Pain less groin swelling noticed when the child cries
Nursing Question 4 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: Painless groin swelling noticed when the child cries
Rationale:
- An inguinal hernia occurs when a portion of the intestine or abdominal tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles, specifically in the inguinal canal. This condition is relatively common in children, particularly in boys.
- The key clinical finding of an inguinal hernia in a child is a painless swelling or bulge in the groin area, which becomes more noticeable when the child cries, coughs, or strains. This happens because increased intra-abdominal pressure pushes the herniated tissue outward, making the bulge more visible.
- The swelling usually disappears or reduces when the child is calm or lying down, as the herniated tissue moves back into the abdominal cavity.
- Although inguinal hernias are typically painless, complications such as strangulation (when blood supply to the herniated tissue is cut off) can occur, leading to pain, redness, and other symptoms that require immediate medical attention.
Explanation of Other Options:
Reports of difficulty defecating
- Rationale: Difficulty defecating is not a primary symptom of an inguinal hernia. While constipation can increase intra-abdominal pressure, which may exacerbate the visibility of a hernia, it is not a direct indicator of the condition. Difficulty defecating is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues such as constipation, anal fissures, or bowel obstruction.
Reports of a dribbling urinary stream
- Rationale: A dribbling urinary stream is usually linked to urological conditions such as urinary tract infections, posterior urethral valves, or bladder dysfunction. It is not indicative of an inguinal hernia, as hernias do not typically affect the urinary system unless they are associated with other rare complications.
Absence of the testis within the scrotum
- Rationale: The absence of a testis within the scrotum is a characteristic finding of cryptorchidism (undescended testis), a separate condition. Although cryptorchidism and inguinal hernias can sometimes coexist in male children due to developmental abnormalities, the absence of a testis is not a direct indicator of an inguinal hernia.
Conclusion:
- The most accurate clinical finding for an inguinal hernia in a child is painless groin swelling that becomes noticeable when the child cries or strains. Early identification and treatment are crucial to prevent complications such as incarceration or strangulation. Parents should seek medical evaluation if they notice any unusual swelling in the groin area of their child.
Nursing Question 5:
The nurse should place a patient who sustained a head injury in which position to prevent increased intracranial pressure (ICP)
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : With the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees
Nursing Question 5 Detailed Solution
Correct Answer: With the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees
Rationale:
- Patients who have sustained a head injury are at risk of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), a potentially life-threatening condition caused by swelling, bleeding, or a disruption in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) dynamics. Proper positioning can help promote venous drainage from the brain and reduce ICP.
- Elevating the head of the bed at least 30 degrees helps facilitate venous return from the brain to the heart, reducing the risk of venous congestion and subsequent increases in ICP.
- This position also ensures optimal oxygenation by improving respiratory mechanics, which is crucial for maintaining adequate oxygen delivery to the brain and preventing secondary brain injury.
- Additionally, keeping the head in a neutral alignment (not flexed or extended) while elevating the bed prevents compression of the jugular veins, further aiding venous drainage.
Explanation of Other Options:
In left Sim’s position
- Rationale: Left Sim’s position involves lying on the left side with the lower arm behind the body and the upper leg bent. While this position is helpful for certain situations, such as facilitating drainage in unconscious patients or during enemas, it is not ideal for managing ICP. This position can impede venous drainage from the brain, potentially worsening ICP.
In reverse Trendelenburg
- Rationale: Reverse Trendelenburg involves tilting the patient so that the head is higher than the feet. While this might seem similar to elevating the head of the bed, the entire body is inclined, which does not promote optimal venous return from the brain. It is less effective in reducing ICP compared to simply elevating the head of the bed at 30 degrees.
With the head elevated on a small, flat pillow
- Rationale: While a small, flat pillow may provide some elevation, it does not achieve the recommended 30-degree head elevation necessary to ensure adequate venous drainage and ICP reduction. Additionally, this position may not consistently maintain the head and neck in a neutral alignment.
Additional Information:
- Proper positioning is just one aspect of managing ICP. Other interventions include maintaining normothermia, avoiding activities that increase intrathoracic or intra-abdominal pressure (e.g., straining, coughing), and using medications to reduce swelling or control seizures.
- Monitoring the patient for signs of increased ICP, such as changes in consciousness, pupil abnormalities, or worsening headaches, is critical for timely intervention.
- It is also important to avoid extreme flexion, extension, or rotation of the neck, as these can compress venous outflow and exacerbate ICP.
Conclusion:
- Elevating the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees is the most effective position for reducing ICP in patients with head injuries. This positioning promotes venous drainage, optimizes oxygenation, and helps prevent complications associated with elevated ICP.
Top Nursing MCQ Objective Questions
In females, the onset of puberty is first marked by ___________.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : Thelarche
Nursing Question 6 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFExplanation
- Puberty is the process of happening physical changes in a child's body to mature into an adult body and develop the capability of reproduction.
-
Sequence
- Thelarche or Breast budging
- Usually, it is the first sign
- It may often unilateral
- Menarche
- Usually 2-3 years after breast development
- Growth spurt peaks before menarche
- Pubarche
- Development of Pubic hair
Key Points
Puberty is marked By Thelarche, Which means developing of Secondary Sexual Characters
- Thelarche age 9.7 years
- Menarche age 10 and 16
- Here Thelarche is seen earlier and then Menarche so the correct answer is Thelarche
Additional Information
- It is initiated by the hormonal signaling from the brain to gonads and ovaries.
- Girls begin puberty at ages 10–11 and complete puberty at ages 15–17.
- Boys generally begin puberty at age of 11–12 and complete puberty at ages 16–17.
Other Changes in Females
- Breast development
- Development of pubic hair
- Perineal skin keratinizes
- The mucosal surface of the vagina becomes thick and pinkish in response to estrogen.
- Uterus, ovaries, and follicles will increase in size.
- Menstrual bleeding
- Pelvis and hip widen
Mistake Points
Kindly note that
Puberty is marked By Thelarche, Which means the development of Secondary Sexual Characters
- Thelarche age 9.7 years
- Menarche age 10 and 16
- Here Thelarche is seen earlier and then Menarche so the correct answer is Thelarche
Arthritis is the disease of ________.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Joints
Nursing Question 7 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is Joints.
- Arthritis is the disease of Joints.
Key Points
- Arthritis:
- The main symptoms of Arthritis are the swelling and tenderness of our joints.
- The other symptoms of arthritis are joint pain and stiffness, which typically become worsen with age.
- Arthritis occurs when your body's immune system attacks the tissues of the body.
- There are two most common types of arthritis:
- Osteoarthritis: Most common type of Arthritis.
- Rheumatoid arthritis: Caused due to attack of the immune system on part of our body.
Additional Information
- Skin:
- The most common form of skin disease is
- Acne
- Eczema
- Psoriasis
- The most common form of skin disease is
- Kidney:
- The most common form of kidney disease is chronic kidney disease.
- Type 1 or type 2 diabetes
- High blood pressure
- The most common form of kidney disease is chronic kidney disease.
- Liver:
- The most common types of liver infection are hepatitis viruses, including:
- Hepatitis A
- Hepatitis B
- Hepatitis C
- The most common types of liver infection are hepatitis viruses, including:
Deficiency of which vitamin causes scurvy disease?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Vitamin C
Nursing Question 8 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is Vitamin C
| Vitamins | Chemical Name | Deficiency Disease |
| Vitamin A | Retinol | Night Blindness |
| Vitamin B1 | Thiamine | Beriberi |
| Vitamin C | Ascorbic Acid | Scurvy |
| Vitamin D | Calciferol | Rickets and osteomalacia |
| Vitamin K | Phylloquinone | Non-clotting of Blood |
| Vitamin B2 | Riboflavin | Cracking of Skin |
Additional Information
- Vitamins were first discovered by FG Hopkins.
- The term Vitamin was coined by C Funk.
- There are two types of Vitamins:
- Fat-Soluble- Vitamin A, D, E, and K.
- Water-Soluble - Vitamin B and C.
- Natural sources of Vitamin D are - Sunlight, fish, eggs, and mushrooms.
In the menstrual cycle, lowering of which hormone causes menstruation?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : Progesterone
Nursing Question 9 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is Progesterone.
Key Points
Concept:
- Menstrual cycle: The rhythmic series of changes that occur in the reproductive organs of female primates (monkeys, apes, and human beings) is called the menstrual cycle.
- It is repeated after every 28/29 days.
- The menstrual cycle has four phases:
- Menstrual phase
- Follicular phase
- Ovulatory phase
- Luteal phase
Explanation:
- During the ovulatory phase, at about the 14th day of the cycle, there is a rupture of the graffian follicle and the ovum gets released.
- The ruptured Graffian follicle soon gets transformed into the Corpus luteum.
- The Corpus luteum gets stimulated by the rising levels of LH and starts secreting the Progesterone hormone.
- Progesterone hormone is required for the maintenance of the endometrium lining of the uterus.
- In case if pregnancy does not occur after ovulation the levels of progesterone start to fall down and this leads to the disintegration of the endometrium lining causing menstruation.
- Thus, lowering of progesterone hormone causes menstruation, as it is required for the maintenance of the endometrium lining, and for this reason, only progesterone is also called the pregnancy hormone.
Additional Information
- Thyroxine: It is an endocrine secretion of the thyroid gland. The thyroid gland requires 120 microgram Iodine per day for the production of thyroxine It regulates the basal metabolic rate of the body.
- Estrogen, or Oestrogen: It is a sex hormone responsible for the development and regulation of the female reproductive system and secondary sex characteristics.
- Follicle-stimulating hormone: It is one of the hormones essential to pubertal development and the function of women's ovaries and men's testes. In women, this hormone stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles in the ovary before the release of an egg from one follicle at ovulation
Which gland controls the functioning of other endocrine glands?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Pituitary gland
Nursing Question 10 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is Pituitary Gland.
Key Points
- The pituitary gland controls the functioning of other endocrine glands. The pituitary is often called the master gland because its hormones control another part of the endocrine system like thyroid glands, ovaries, and testes.
- The pituitary gland has two parts which are the anterior lobe and posterior lobe. Both parts have separate functions. This gland is located at the base of the brain and it is one-third of an inch diameter.
Additional Information
- The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped gland and it is located in the base of the throat. It releases hormones that control metabolism. It is 2 inches long. The thyroid is part of the endocrine system which is made up of glands. This gland uses iodine from the food we eat.
- The pineal gland is a small pea-shaped gland. it is located in the brain. it is called the third eye. It is about one-third inch long and its color is a reddish-grey gland. The pineal gland often appears in X-rays.
- The adrenal glands are small glands. It is located on top of each kidney.
Night blindness is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin _______.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : A
Nursing Question 11 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is A.
- Vitamins are organic compounds that are required in small amounts in our diet but their deficiency causes specific diseases.
- Vitamins are designated by alphabets A, B, C, D, etc. Some of them are further named as sub-groups e.g. B1, B2, B6, B12, etc.
- Vitamins that are soluble in fat and oils but insoluble in water are kept in this group. These are vitamins A, D, E, and K. They are stored in liver and adipose (fat-storing) tissues.
- B group vitamins and vitamin C are soluble in water so they are grouped together.
Key Points
- The deficiency of one or more nutrients can cause diseases or disorders in our bodies. Diseases that occur due to a lack of nutrients over a long period are called deficiency diseases.
- Deficiency of Vitamin - A causes Night Blindness.
- Deficiency of Vitamin - B causes Beri - Beri.
- Deficiency of Vitamin - C causes Scurvy.
- Deficiency of Vitamin - D causes Rickets.
- Deficiency of Vitamin - E causes Less Fertility.
- Deficiency of Vitamin - K causes Non- clotting of blood.
________ connects muscle to the bones.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Tendons
Nursing Question 12 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:
- Tendons are fibrous connective tissues, and connects muscle to the bones.
- Ligaments join one bone to bone, while tendons connect muscle to bone for a proper functioning of the body.
- Both Tendons and Ligaments are made of collagen.
- Cartilage
- is a resilient and smooth elastic tissue, rubber-like padding that covers and protects the ends of long bones at the joints.
- It is a structural component of the rib cage, the ear, the nose, the bronchial tubes, the intervertebral discs, and many other body components.
- It is not as hard and rigid as bone, but it is much stiffer and much less flexible than muscle.
-
Areolar tissue is a type of loose connective tissue.
-
It holds organs in place and attaches epithelial tissue to other underlying tissues.
-
It also surrounds the blood vessels and nerves.
-
How many pairs of cranial nerves are present in the human body?
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 1 : 12 pairs
Nursing Question 13 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFExplanation-
Cranial nerves
- 12 pairs of cranial nerves are present.
- Cranial nerves emerge directly from the brain.
- It relay information between the brain and parts of the body.
The femur bones of the human body are also known as ______.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 2 : thigh bones
Nursing Question 14 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFThe correct answer is Thigh Bones.
Key Points
- The femur bones of the human body are also called thigh bones.
- The femur is the only bone located within the human thigh.
- It is the longest and the strongest bone in the human body.
- The head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum in the pelvic bone forming the hip joint.
- while the distal part of the femur articulates with the tibia and kneecap, forming the knee joint.
Additional Information
- Wrist Bone :
- Your wrist is made up of eight small bones (carpal bones) plus two long bones in your forearm:
- the radius
- the ulna
- The most commonly injured carpal bone is the scaphoid bone, located near the base of your thumb.
- The wrist is a complex joint that bridges the hand to the forearm.
- The bones comprising the wrist include the distal ends of the radius and ulna, 8 carpal bones, and the proximal portions of the 5 metacarpal bones.
- The trapezoid bone is the smallest bone in the distal row of carpal bones that give structure to the palm of the hand.
- Your wrist is made up of eight small bones (carpal bones) plus two long bones in your forearm:
- Shoulder Bone :
- The shoulder is one of the largest and most complex joints in the body.
- The shoulder joint is formed where the humerus (upper arm bone) fits into the scapula (shoulder blade), like a ball and socket.
- The shoulder is made up of three bones:
- the scapula (shoulder blade), clavicle (collarbone), and humerus (upper arm bone).
- Two joints in the shoulder allow it to move:
- the acromioclavicular joint, where the highest point of the scapula (acromion) meets the clavicle, and the glenohumeral joint.
- The humerus fits relatively loosely into the shoulder joint.
- This gives the shoulder a wide range of motion but also makes it vulnerable to injury.
- Four joints are present in the shoulder:
- the sternoclavicular (SC), acromioclavicular (AC), and scapulothoracic joints, and glenohumeral joint.
- Coller Bone :
- The collarbone (clavicle) is a long slender bone that connects your arms to your body.
- It runs horizontally between the top of your breastbone (sternum) and shoulder blades (scapula).
- The beauty bone is mostly just another name for your collarbone or clavicle, in women.
- It is the bone located above the ribs in the chest.
- Like the ribs, the clavicle is attached to the sternum, sometimes also known as the breast bone, on its medial end.
- There are two clavicles, one on the left and one on the right.
- The clavicle is the only long bone in the body that lies horizontally.
Answer (Detailed Solution Below)
Option 4 : Cubital fossa
Nursing Question 15 Detailed Solution
Download Solution PDFConcept:-
- The cubital fossa: the cubital fossa is a triangular depression that lies in front of the elbow.
- Boundaries:
- Laterally: the brachioradialis muscle
- Medially: the pronator teres muscle
- The base of the triangle is formed by an imaginary line drawn between the two epicondyles of the humerus.
- The floor of the fossa is formed by the supinator muscle laterally and the brachialis muscle medially.
- The roof is formed by skin and fascia and is reinforced by bicipital aponeurosis.
Additional InformationFemoral area:
- it relates to the femur and its proximal articulation with the pelvis to form the coxa (hip) joint and its distal articulation with the tibia and patella, and by extension the fibula, to form the knee joint.
Radial bone:
- it is one of the two large bones of the forearm, the other being the ulna. It extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist and runs parallel to the ulna.
Popliteal Fossa is a diamond-shaped space behind the knee joint.